PMP_QA_1000_Questions Part 13

 

 

Question 926

In which process is formal acceptance and handover of the final product/ service performed?

A. Scope verification

B. Close project

C. Contract administration

D. Contract closure

Answer: B

Question 927

Product verification is usually performed in the closing process. Which of the following best describes its purpose?

A. Product verification is a method for quantifying qualitative data to minimize the effect of biases during select sellers B. Product verification provides management with information about how effectively the seller is achieving the contractual objectives

C. Product verification is used to verify that work was completed correctly and satisfactorily.

D. Product verification includes samples of the suppliers previous products for the purpose of providing a way to evaluate a supplier’s capabilities

Answer: C

Question 928

Which of the following establishes the formal documentation as to why the project was terminated and formalizes the procedures for transferring the unfinished delivers of the cancelled project?

A. Project files

B. Historical information

C. Project closure documents

D. Formal acceptance documentation

Answer: C

Question 929

Earned value analysis is a performance reporting tool/ technique used in the Manage Stakeholders process. Which of the following performance measurements is derived by the following formula: (EV/PV)?

A. VAC

B. SV

C. SPI

D. CV

E. CPI

Answer: C

Question 930

Which of the following best describes the project integration Management Knowledge Area?

A. Activity definition, activity sequencing, schedule control B. Communications planning, information distribution, performance reporting, manage stakeholders

C. Develop project management plan, direct and manage project execution, integrated change control

D.  Human resource planning, acquire project team, develop project team

Answer: C

Question 931

All of the following are outputs of the close project process EXCEPT: A. Formal acceptance documentation

B. Contract closure procedure

C. Administrative closure procedure

D. Final product, service or result

E. Deliverables

Answer: E

Question 932

According to the PMI, early termination of a contract is considered a special case of:

A. Contract cancellation

B. Contract severance

C. Contractual severance

D. Contract default

E. Contractual non-performance

Answer: B

Question 933

Which of the following statements are false regarding the records management system?

A. A records management system defines the process by which the contract can be modified 

B. A records management system is a tool/ technique of contract administration and contract closure

C. A records management system is used to manage contract documentation and records

D. A records management system maintains an index of contract documents and correspondence

Answer: A

Question 934

Which of the following process is involved with the completion and settlement of the contract?

A. Manage stakeholders

B. Contract closure

C. Contract administration

D. Performance reporting

Answer: B

Question 935

Contract documentation are an input to the contract closure process. 

Which of the following are NOT included as part of the contract documentation?

A. Contract changes

B. Supporting schedules

C. Invoices and payment records

D. Seller response reports

E. Contract file

Answer: E

Question 936

Which of the following statements are true regarding project endings?

A. Integration occurs when a project evolves into ongoing operations

B. Extinction occurs when resources are removed from the project, such as due to funding/ resource cuts

C. None of the choices are correct

D. Addition occurs when the resources (personnel, equipment, property, etc) of the project are reassigned to other areas within the organization or other projects

E. Completion occurs when the project end because it was completed successfully and accepted by stakeholders

Answer: C

Question 937

Which of the following is NOT considered an organizational process asset?

A. Financial controls procedure

B. Project closure guidelines

C. Stakeholders risk tolerance

D. Performance measurement criteria’s

E. Risk control procedures

Answer: C

Question 938

The purpose of lessons learned documentation, that is an output of the contract closure process, is all of the following EXCEPT: A. Document acceptance of work results

B. Evaluate project goals and compare them to project deliverables C. Review success and failure

D. Document possible improvements for future projects Answer: A

Question 939

Which of the following are not tools/techniques of the develop project charter process?

A. expert judgment

B. PMIS

C. Project management methodologies

D. Project selection methods 

E. Stakeholder analysis

Answer: E

Question 940

You are a project manager at for an information technology division of a large financial brokerage in the United States. Due to new regulatory requirements enacted by Sarbanes-Oxley you have been assigned to audit all I.T. systems to ensure compliance. You need to ensure that all data in the data base in encrypted to ensure confidentially. You need to ensure that all users are properly authenticated. You also need to verify that authorization to confidential financial information follows the least-privilege principle. 

The deadline to ensure compliance with Sarbanes-Oxley regulations is within 180 days. Failing to complete the result in 180 days will result in the significant fines to your organization. You have been given a budget of $2 million dollars. Due to the overall budget cuts this year, 

you have been told that budget is fixed and cannot be increased by $1000 dollars. Which is the primary constraint for this project?

A. Schedule

B. Budget

C. Scope

D. Quality

Answer: A

Question 941

Which of the following statements are not true?

A. In a strong matrix organization, project mangers have little or no formal authority

B. Project managers have low to moderate level of authority in a Balanced Matrix organization

C. Project managers have high level of authority in a projectized organization

D. In a weak matrix organization, conflicts between functional managers and project managers are common.

Answer: A

Question 942

Which of the following best describes the following organizational structure?

A. Functional Org

B. Strong Matrix Org

C. Weak Matrix Org

D. Projectized Org

E. Balanced Matrix Org

Answer: D

Question 943

Projects are typically authorized as a result of one or more of the following needs:

A. Technological advance

B. Marketing needs

C. All of the choices are correct

D. Business needs

E. Legal requirements

Answer: C

Question 944

Your company develops large commercial and industry real estate. In you current project, you have been asked to manage the construction of a 30-story office building. Which document describes the business needs for this project, identifies key deliverables, and gives you authority to begin the project and start assigning resources?

A. Work break down structure

B. Executive summary

C. Project charter

D. Ishikawa document

E. Work authorization form

Answer: C

Question 945

Dennis works for an international manufacturer of consumer electronics. He has been recently assigned to supervise and manage the manufacturing of a new model of flat-screen televisions. His supervisor congratulates Dennis on his expanded responsibilities.

He informs Dennis that his new assignment will have the 1000 units of the new flat screen manufactured by September. What of the following is true regarding Dennis’s new assignment?

A. His assignment cannot be considered a project since his flat-screen televisions are not a unique product for the company

B. His assignment cannot be considered a project since his assignment is to supervise the manufacturing of a new and unique line of products

C. His assignment cannot be considered a project since his project has no clear end-date

D. His assignment cannot be considered a project because this product line has never been manufactured by this company.

Answer: B

Question 946

According to PMI, application areas are categories of projects that have common elements in the majority of project, but are NOT 

necessarily required or applicable to all projects. 

Application areas are NOT usually defined in terms of: A. Industry groups

B. Management specializations

C. None of the choices are correct

D. Technical elements

E. Functional departments

Answer: C

Question 947

Your company manufactures CPU for high-end workstation computers. 

Your current project involves manufacturing a very high speed CPU 

(~10GHZ). You worked on a similar project three years ago to manufacture a lower speed CPU (~2GHZ).

You are in the develop project charter process. Which of the following inputs are LEAST helpful?

A. Historical information on the previous manufacturing 2GHZ chips. 

This information could be helpful since this project is similar in nature

B. The project’s preliminary project scope statement which defines the scope of the project

C. The project’s statement of work (SOW), which includes the product scope description

D. The project constraints and assumptions to make sure that the any significant project risks can be identified and mitigated E. Data on market place conditions to make sure that the market really exists for this new 10GHZ chips. 

Answer: B

Question 948

You are the project manager at Happy Coffee Café, a rapidly growing franchise selling premium blended coffee. Currently, your company is planning on opening additional stores through the United states. Your target markets primarily include densely populated metropolitan areas. 

Your company is evaluating different areas for expansion, including New York, San Francisco, and Seattle. Based on your market analysis you have obtained the following information:

New York-IRR (45%), payback period (1.5 years)

San Francisco-IRR (32%), payback period (1.1 years) Seattle-IRR (36%), payback period (0.75 years)

Based on this data which area is best for Happy Coffee Café?

A. San Francisco since the IRR is the lowest

B. New York since IRR is highest

C. Seattle since payback period is shortest

D. New York since the payback period is the longest

Answer: B

Question 949

Which of the following statements are true?

A. The payback period calculations do not consider the time value of money

B. IRR calculations do not consider the time value of money C. Discounted cash flow calculation do not consider the time value of money

D. NPV calculation do not consider the time value of money Answer: A

Question 950

According to the PMI, which of the following are NOT true with regards to programs and projects?

A. Projects consists of one or more related programs

B. Programs often include elements of ongoing operations C. Programs are groups of project managed together

D. Programs may involve a series of repetitive undertakings Answer: A

Question 951

Which of the following are not inputs to the develop preliminary project scope statement?

A. Organizational process assets

B. Enterprise environmental factors

C. WBS

D. Project charter

E. Project statement of work

Answer: C

Question 952

You are the project manager at Day-Old donuts a rapidly growing franchise selling premium donuts at a discount. Currently, your company is planning on opening additional stores throughout Europe.

Your company is evaluating different areas for expansion including France, Germany and England.

You need to give the presentation to the steering committee to discuss which areas provide the best opportunities for expansion. For each of the three locations, you have been asked to determine the discount rate at which the present value of future cash flows of an investment equal to the cost of investment. What is this considered?

A. Weighted scoring model

B. IRR

C. NPV

D. Payback period

Answer: B

Question 953

You are the project manager for an information technology division of a large financial services firm in the United States. Your company offers a web based trading platform that provides options and futures trading for U.S commodities markets. Due to the rise in popularity of futures and options trading, your company has grown rapidly. In fact, due to rapid growth, the company’s I.T. infrastructure is unable to meet the growing demands.

To keep up with the demands you have been assigned the responsibility of upgrading the company’s network and company’s infrastructure. You have been asked to calculate the payback period for the project that is to be completed in the next 24 months.

The IRR of the project is 12% and the annual savings will be $2million. 

The total cost of project will be $6million dollars. The cost of capital used by the company during previous projects is 5%. What is the payback period for this project?

A. 2 years

B. 3 years

C. 4.5 years

D. 5.5 years

E. 4 years

Answer: B

Question 954

Subject matter experts are resources that can provide very valuable information to the project. In which scope-statement processes are subject matter experts first utilized?

A. Scope control

B. Create WBS

C. Scope planning

D. Scope definition

E. Scope verification

Answer: C

Question 955

The Preliminary Scope Statement which is and output of the Develop Preliminary Project Scope Statement process, is an input to all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Scope definition

B. Integrated change control

C. Scope planning

D. Develop project management plan

Answer: B

Question 956

Which of the following statements about fast-tracking is TRUE?

A. Fast tracking refers to assigning additional resources to a project in an attempt to decrease project schedule/ timeline

B. Fast tracking is the process of increasing the schedule by overlapping various project tasks

C. One of the advantages of fast-tracking is that it can often lead to reduced rework and reduces project risks

D. None of the statements are true

E. Fast tracking involves performing activities sequentially Answer: D

Question 957

Which of the following statements are true regarding the risk break down structure?

A. The risk break down structure represents a hierarchically organized representation of identified project risks arranged by risk impact

B. None of the statements are true

C. The risk break down structure identifies all elements of risk activities that will be documented and audited.

D. The risk break down structure describes the format and content of risk register

Answer: B

Question 958

You are the project manager for the software company that develops stock analysis software. You have been assigned to develop a new technical analysis tools to forecast the price of stock given its historical volatility based on Elliot Wave techniques. You need to gather necessary information to write the project scope management plan. 

Which of the following tools/ techniques will NOT be useful for you in this process?

A. Project management plan

B. Templates

C. Standards

D. Forms

E. Expert judgment

Answer: A

Question 959

Fragment network area term used in reference with which of the following?

A. Resource requirements

B. WBS

C. Network templates

D. Activity lists

Answer: C

Question 960

Schedule model data, which is an input of the schedule development process, includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Schedule milestones, schedule activities

B. Contingency reserves

C. Alternative schedules

D. Activity attributes, constraints and assumptions

E. Risk register

Answer: E

Question 961

What is the total slack for activity D, considering the following table?

A. None of the choices are correct

B. 5

C. 10

D.  77

E. 72

Answer: E

Question 962

Which of the following statement are FALSE regarding the probability impact matrix technique?

A. Opportunities and threats should not be evaluated in the same matrix concurrently

B. The probability impact matrix is a tool/ technique of the quantitative risk analysis process

C. Either descriptive terms or numeric rankings can be used to assign risk rankings to identified risks

D. An organization can rate a risk separately for each objective (i.e. 

cost, time, scope)

E. The probability impact matrix specifies combinations of probability and impact that rank the risk as high, moderate and low priority

Answer: B

Question 963

You have been recently been assigned to provide an accurate project schedule for constructing a new 50-story casino, in Las Vegas, Nevada. You are evaluating the network diagram for the construction project, and are using the forward pass calculations to construct the schedule.

You are trying to calculate the earliest start time for laying the foundation of the building. The expected duration for this task is 150 

days. The task must be completed within 300 days, while the expected 

completion is within 220 days. The latest finish time is 200 days. 

Based on this information, what is the earliest start time of this task?

A. Not enough information is provided

B. 150

C. 200

D. 300

E. 50

Answer: E

Question 964

Which of the following is the BEST candidate for a three-point estimate?

A. A schedule activity with a considerable variation

B. A brief schedule activity that takes a couple of hours C. A schedule activity with a fixed duration

D. A schedule activity with little duration variation Answer: A

Question 965

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate an estimate for activity parameters such as duration and cost?

A. Bottom-up estimates

B. Influence diagrams

C. SWOT analysis

D. Analogous estimating

E. Parametric estimating

Answer: E

Question 966

You are in the process of identifying and documenting the project roles and responsibilities and create staffing management plan. All of the following are tools/ techniques you can use EXCEPT:

A. RACI

B. Organizational theory

C. Networking

D. Negotiation

E. RBS

Answer: D

Question 967

Which of the following statements are true regarding Management Reserves?

A. Management Reserves are part of the project management plan and is usually displayed as a S-Shaped curve

B. Management Reserves are used to ensure that the expenditure of funds is reconciles with the funding limits imposed by the performing organization

C. Management Reserves describes the differences between the maximum funding and the end of the cost baseline

D. Management Reserves is a technique for measuring the performance of work and is used to establish the performance measurement baseline

Answer: C

Question 968

You are in the process of developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete each schedule activity. All of the following are outputs of this process EXCEPT:

A. Cost management plan updates

B. Activity cost estimates

C. Activity cost estimate supporting detail

D. Requested changes

E. Cost baseline

Answer: E

Question 969

Which of the following statements are true regarding cost estimating techniques?

A. None of the choices are true

B. Bottom up estimating is a technique that uses statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate a cost estimate.

C. Analogous estimating is generally more costly than other techniques but produces more accurate estimates

D. Parametric estimates involves estimating the cots of individual work packages at the lowest level of detail, and “rolling up” and summarizing the costs at higher levels

Answer: A

Question 970

You are in the process project a project schedule for repainted your house, you first need to scrap off the existing paint, and then add a layer of primer. The primer provides the paint a better bonding surface so it sticks to the base material much better. Without priming, drywall surfaces will soak up more finish paint in some areas than in others, producing a splotchy effect.

You decided to speed up the process by starting priming before all the scraping is finished. To correctly sequence these activities, which of the following should you do?

A. Add float time between the priming and painting tasks B. Fast track the priming and painting tasks

C. Ad lag time to the priming task

D. Add lead time to the priming task

Answer: D

Question 971

The risk register is initiated in the Risk Identification process and further updated in the Qualitative Risk analysis and Quantitative Risk analysis processes. Which of the following are NOT risk register updates as part of the Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

A. Risk categorization

B. Trends in quantitative risk analysis results

C. Probability of achieving cost and time objects

D. Probabilistic analysis of the project

E. Prioritized list of qualified risks

Answer: A

Question 972

Which of the following statements are true regarding the scope baseline for a project?

A. The scope baseline is an output of the create WBS process.

B. The scope baseline is an output of the scope verification process C. The scope baseline is an input of the create WBS process D. The scope baseline is an input of the scope verification process E. The scope baseline is an input of the scope control process Answer: A

Question 973

You are currently on a 3-week vocation in Australia. You’ve decided to rent a car as your means of transport around the country. Driving in a foreign country can be potentially a risky activity as you are unfamiliar 

with the terrain. Hence, the probability of being involved in an accident is higher.

As a project manager, you are aware of various techniques used to respond to understand risks. You would like to apply your risk management knowledge to reduce the risks associated with your driving. Which of the following is the BEST example of risk avoidance?

A. Accept the risk associated with driving

B. Be extra careful while driving defensively

C. Buying auto insurance

D. Avoid driving, use public transportation instead

Answer: D

Question 974

Qualitative risk analysis requires accurate data as its input. Risk data quality assessment ranking is a technique to evaluate the degree to which the data regarding risks would be useful. Risk quality data assessment involves examining all of the following EXCEPT: A. Reliability and integrity of data

B. Time-criticality of risk related actions

C. Quality of eh data

D. Extent of understanding of risk

Answer: B

Question 975

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between plan purchases and acquisitions and plan contracting?

A. Plan purchases and acquisitions involves documenting product requirements and identifying potential sources, while plan contracting involves obtaining quotation, bids, offers, and proposals

B. Plan purchases and acquisitions involves producing the statement of work, while plan contracting involves producing the procurement document and evaluation criteria

C. Plan purchases and acquisitions involves determined what to procure, while plan contracting involves documenting product requirements and identifying potential sources

D. Plan purchases and acquisitions involves producing the evaluation criteria while, plan contracting involves producing the statement of work

Answer: B, C

Question 976

Which of the following best describes a form of progressive elaboration planning where the work to be performed in the near time is planned in detail at a low level of WBS, while the work far in future is planned for WBS components that are relatively high level of the WBS?

A. Planning components

B. None of the choices are correct

C. Decomposition

D. Schedule network templates

E. Milestones list

F. Rolling wave planning

Answer: F

Question 977

Which of the following statements are FALSE regarding the critical chain method?

A. The critical chain describes longest path through a project schedule network after resource leveling

B. The CCM uses, aggregate problem buffers in the project plan instead of individual activity/ task buffer

C. In CCM, uncertainty is managed by padding task duration, starting work as early as possible, and multi-tasking D. CCM focuses on managing buffer activity duration in lieu of managing the total float of network paths 

E. CCM factors in resource availability limitations when constructing the project schedule

Answer: C

Question 978

You are in the process of identifying and documenting the logical relationships among schedule activities. Which of the following are NOT tools/ techniques you can use in this process?

A. Schedule network templates

B. Rolling wave planning

C. Dependency determination

D. PDM/ADM

E. Applying leads and lags

Answer: B

Question 979

Which of the following statements are true regarding GERT?

A. It is considered a conditional diagramming method

B. It only uses finish-to-start relationships

C. It does not support iterations and conditional branching D. It uses dummy activities to express logical relationships between activities

Answer: A

Question 980

Which of the following statements are FALSE regarding expected monetary value analysis (EMV)?

A. EMV is calculated by multiplying the value of each possible outcome by its probability of occurrence, and summing them together

B. EMV is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome of project outcomes based on various assumptions and scenarios C. EMV is a technique that computes the project cost or schedule over multiple iterations using random values selecting from distribution of possible costs or duration values

D. Decision tree analysis is a type of EMV analysis

E. EMV is a tool/ technique of  Qualitative Risk Analysis Answer: A

Question 981

Which of the following statements are FALSE?

A. Funding limit aggregation is used to ensure that the expenditure of funds is reconciled with the funding limits imposed by the performing organization

B. Cost aggregation and parametric estimation is a tool/ technique of cost budgeting process

C. Analogous estimating is a form of expert judgment and is generally less accurate than other techniques, but is also less costly

D. Parametric estimating is an estimating technique using project characteristics/ parameters to estimate the total project costs Answer: A

Question 982

The risk management plan is a subset of the project management plan and describes how risk management should be performed. All of the following should be included in the risk management plan EXCEPT:

A. Stakeholders tolerance, reporting formats

B. Methodology, roles and responsibilities

C. Recommended preventive actions

D. P-l matrix

E. Budgeting, timing, risk categories

Answer: C

Question 983

You have been recently assigned to provide an accurate project schedule for constructing a new 50-story casino in Las Vegas, Nevada. 

You are evaluating the network diagram for the construction project, and are in the process of identifying the critical path of the project.

Based on the following diagram, which path is the critical path?

A. A-B-E-FD-G

B. A-B-D-G

C. A-E-F-D-G

D. A-C-D-G

E. A-E-F-G

Answer: B

Question 984

You are in the process of establishing a total cost baseline for measuring project performance. Which of the following is the LEAST 

helpful tool/ technique?

A. Parametric estimating

B. Cost aggregation

C. Forecasting

D. Reserve analysis

E. Funding limit reconciliation

Answer: C

Question 985

You are the project manager at a utility company. Due to the recent rise in the cost of petroleum, your organization is exploring cheaper, alternative forms of energy. You have just completed the project Scope Planning process and created the Scope management plan. 

However, upon review, you have determined that the resulting  project scope management plan is ambiguous and poorly written. A poorly written project scope management plan will directly impact all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Ability to identify the necessary activities that needs to be performed to produce project deliverables

B. Ability to define, prepare and integrate, all subsidiary plan, into the project management plan

C. Ability to control changes to the project scope

D. Ability to create a detailed project scope statement as the basis for future project decisions

Answer: B

Question 986

What is the lowest level in a WBS called?

A. Work package

B. Work unit

C. Project task

D. Work activity

E. Work task

Answer: A

Question 987

You are using the three-point estimating technique to estimate the duration of a schedule activity. Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating variance assuming a triangular distribution?

A. (pessimistic + optimistic + most likely )/3

B. ((optimistic-pessimistic)/6)^2

C. [(optimistic-pessimistic)^2+(most likely-pessimistic)*(most likely-optimistic)]/18

D. (pessimistic +4 *(most likely)+ optimistic)/6

Answer: A

Question 988

You are in the process of identifying and documenting project risks. 

Which of the following is the LEAST helpful tool/ technique?

A. Root cause analysis

B. Risk audits

C. SWOT analysis

D. Influence diagrams

E. Cause and effect diagrams

Answer: B

Question 989

All of the following statements regarding Control Accounts are true EXCEPT:

A. Each Control Account contains one or more work packages and planning packages

B. Each work package/ planning package may be associated with multiple control account

C. Control accounts are also referred to as cost accounts D. A control account is a management control point for cost summarization, scope description, and variance analysis and reporting

E. A control account is an assigned WBS level used to monitor cost and schedule performance of significant element of work.

Answer: B

Question 990

Which of the following is the MOST valuable result of creating the work breakdown structure?

A. List of risks

B. List of activities

C. Milestones charts

D. Team buy-in

E. Resource requirements

Answer: D

Question 991

You are in the process of estimating the type of and quantity of resources needed to complete individual schedule activities. All of the following are tools/ techniques you can use in this process EXCEPT: A. Parametric estimating

B. Published estimating data, project management software C. Alternatives analysis

D. Bottom-up estimating

E. Expert judgment

Answer: A

Question 992

All of the following are constraints that can limit flexibility in human Resource Planning EXCEPT:

A. Compliance and safety

B. Organizational structure

C. Collective bargaining agreements

D. Economic conditions

Answer: A

Question 993

You are the project manager responsible for renovating a 70-year old building. You intend to hire an outside construction firm to seismic retrofit the building in order to make sure that the building can withstand the large earthquakes. You are in process of selecting a contract type best suited for this project. You would like to select a contract type that transfers the risk onto the seller for any cost risks and no-performance issues. Which contract type should you choose?

A. Fixed price contract

B. Time and materials contracts

C. Cost plus fixed fee contracts

D. Cost reimbursable contracts

E. Cost plus percentage of cost contracts

Answer: A

Question 994

You are in the process of defining the specific activities that need to be performed to develop the necessary project deliverables. Which of the following are NOT tools/ techniques that you can use in this process?

A. Bottom-up estimating

B. Planning component

C. Rolling wave planning

D. Expert judgment

E. Decomposition, templates

Answer: A

Question 995

Which of the following best describes the process of identifying which project needs can be met by procuring products or service outside the project organization?

A. Plan purchases and acquisitions

B. Request seller responses

C. Select sellers

D. Plan contracting

Answer: A

Question 996

You are using the three-point estimating technique to estimate the duration of a schedule activity. You are given the following data: Pessimistic=200days

Optimistic=100days

Most likely=120 days

Average= 130 days

Variance= 277.7

Which of the following statements are true?

A. The calculations were performed assuming a UNIFOREM 

distribution

B. Not enough information is provided

C. The calculations were performed assuming a exponential distribution

D. The calculations were performed assuming a triangular distribution

E. The calculations were performed assuming a beta distribution Answer: E

Question 997

All of the following are outputs of the scope definition process EXCEPT: A. Project scope statement

B. Project scope management plan (updates)

C. Preliminary project scope statement

D. Requested changes

Answer: C

Question 998

All of the following are types of strategies that one can use to deal with risks with upside opportunity EXCEPT:

A. Share

B. Avoid

C. Accept

D. Exploit

E. Enhance

Answer: B

Question 999

You are the project manager responsible for developing a new hybrid engine for a major auto manufacturer. You are in the process of developing the project schedule and would like to access the feasibility of your project schedule under various different conditions. Which of the following scheduling techniques is the LEAST appropriate?

A. Resource leveling

B. Schedule compression

C. Variance analysis

D. Monte Carlo analysis

E. Critical path method

Answer: D

Question 1000

All of the following are considered schedule network analysis techniques EXCEPT:

A. Critical path method

B. Variance analysis

C. What-if analysis

D. Critical chain method

E. Resource leveling

Answer: B